In general, if H is a subgroup of G, then NG(H)/CG(H)↪Aut(H), by conjugation. Now take H=G′′, being cyclic. Then Aut(G′′) is abelian. Since G′′ is normal in G we have NG(G′′)=G and so G/CG(G′′) is abelian, whence G′⊆CG
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manpreet
Best Answer
2 years ago
I'm trying to prove the following, but I'm stuck and I don't see how to continue. Any help is much appreciated!
My work this far: Since G′′G″ is cyclic, it is abelian. Since it is the commutator subgroup of G′G′, it is also known that G′′G″ is normal. Thus (using a theorem from my syllabus), there exists a homomorphism g:G′/G′′→Aut(G′′)g:G′/G″→Aut(G″) such that
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