Embark on a journey of knowledge! Take the quiz and earn valuable credits.
Take A QuizChallenge yourself and boost your learning! Start the quiz now to earn credits.
Take A QuizUnlock your potential! Begin the quiz, answer questions, and accumulate credits along the way.
Take A QuizKindly log in to use this feature. We’ll take you to the login page automatically.
LoginCourse Queries Syllabus Queries 3 years ago
User submissions are the sole responsibility of contributors, with TuteeHUB disclaiming liability for accuracy, copyrights, or consequences of use; content is for informational purposes only and not professional advice.
No matter what stage you're at in your education or career, TuteeHUB will help you reach the next level that you're aiming for. Simply,Choose a subject/topic and get started in self-paced practice sessions to improve your knowledge and scores.
Kindly log in to use this feature. We’ll take you to the login page automatically.
LoginReady to take your education and career to the next level? Register today and join our growing community of learners and professionals.
Your experience on this site will be improved by allowing cookies. Read Cookie Policy
Your experience on this site will be improved by allowing cookies. Read Cookie Policy
manpreet
Best Answer
3 years ago
In a proof in my syllabus of a number theory course, they use that
where fi(x)fi(x) is irreducible, FqFq is the frobenius automorphism of FqFq and FqFq is the finite field of size qq(not necessarily prime). The book also says that this can be proven using properties of finite fields. However, I flipped through me algebra book and I didn't see any particular property that I could use to show this.
Could anyone give me some pointers?