Questions about C1-diffeomorphisms

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manpreet Tuteehub forum best answer Best Answer 3 years ago

In our syllabus, we proved the local inverse function theorem: Let f:ERnf:E→Rn with ERnE⊆Rn open be C1C1. If a⃗ Ea→∈E with detf(a⃗ )0detf′(a→)≠0, then there exist open sets Ua⃗ U∋a→ and Vf(a⃗ )V∋f(a→) such that f:UVf:U→V is a C1C1-diffeomorphism.

I have two questions which involve this theorem.

First, I am asked to prove the following 'global' version of the inverse function theorem, which states: Let f:Efont-style: inherit; font-variant: inherit; font-weight: inherit; font-stretch: inherit; line-height: normal; font-family:

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manpreet 3 years ago

I proof the global version of the inverse function theorem using the following local version:

Inverse function theorem [local]. Let ERnE⊂Rn open, and let f:ERnf:E→Rn be a C1C1 map. Let aEa∈E be such that det(f(a))0det(f′(a))≠0. Then there exists open balls UaU∋a and Vf(a)V∋f(a) such that f:UVf:U→V is a C1C1 diffeomorphism.

I will proof:

Inverse function theorem [global] Let ERnE⊂Rn open, and let f:ERnf:E→Rn be an injective 

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